IS IT RIGHT TO USE THE HEBREW WORD “N’SI ELOHIM” FROM GENESIS 23:6 TO SHOW THAT THE GREEK WORD THEOS IN THE 3RD CLAUSE OF JOHN 1:1 IS AN ADJECTIVE?

Someone  used the Hebrew syntax since he wanted to rectify his wrong understanding about the Greek syntax. שְׁמָעֵנוּ אֲדֹנִי, נְשִׂיא אֱלֹהִים אַתָּה בְּתוֹכֵנוּ–בְּמִבְחַר קְבָרֵינוּ, קְבֹר אֶת-מֵתֶךָ; אִישׁ מִמֶּנּוּ, אֶת-קִבְרוֹ לֹא-יִכְלֶה מִמְּךָ …

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